Quote:
Originally posted by Tyrone Slothrop
Is there a non-rhetorical difference between saying that a woman who engages in non-incestuous consensual sex forfeits the right to autonomy, and saying that you're not going to include the burdens to her in weighing the relative interests relevant to her desire to have an abortion? I'm not seeing it.
Do I see a difference? Yes. Do I think it should be material? No. It's not much of a right to autonomy if it disappears when someone thinks you've been irresponsible. That's like saying that you have a right to free speech, but that it disappears if you say something dumb. Not so much of a right, that.
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I think it goes to how much weight you give the burdens - less if she didn't take proper precautions in the first place.
Answer me this? Why do most people agree there should be a rape/incent exception? Could it be that there is a "no fault" element to their rationale?
