Quote:
Originally posted by NotFromHere
Sorry Sidd, but look at it as a chance to gawk at my avatar again.
Dr. Grammar (yes there is a Dr. Grammar) says either.
According to Merriam Webster's Dictionary of English Usage, "Clearly, none has been both singular and plural since Old English and still is. The notion that it is singular only is a myth of unknown origin that appears to have arisen in the 19th century. If in context it seems like a singular to you, use a singular verb; if it seems like a plural, use a plural verb. Both are acceptable beyond serious criticism"
I will stop now as I hate the grammar discussions. Stop poking me.
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This would be an excellent defense ... except for the fact that you obviously thought fringey was wrong.
Further, I would like to know if Dr. Grammar got his doctorate at the "whatever you think is right" school of self esteem?
(I can't help it. I'm German, and rules are rules.)
