Quote:
Originally posted by taxwonk
I'm not suggesting that we return to the 12th Century. But it is worth remembering that the right to pass one's property to one's heirs is a relatively recent development, and it there is no natural inherent right to receive the property of your ancestors.
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Well than we really don't own our property outright, do we. There is always a reversionary interest to the state.
ETA: and if we don't own it outright, shouldn't the taxes we pay on it be discounted to reflect that?
