Quote:
Originally posted by Tyrone Slothrop
because there simply is, according to the court, no federal law providing for a cause of action against sovereign nations. This is the point of the Slate article -- by so holding, notwithstanding that no one ever raised this argument, the court has weakened the legal prohibitions on torture.
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Coming to this entirely out of context, and without reading the thread... what now? How does the case in question deal with Filartiga?
Or perhaps it need not given that, based only on the last few posts, there is simply no grounds for tort claims against foreign sovereigns other than those that are state sponsors of terror. I guess that is not inconsistent with my previous understanding.
