Quote:
Originally posted by nononono
Does anyone have any reliable stats on what percentage of abortions are done in the first trimester, due to a direct compromising of the mother's health? It would help me to formulate my thoughts on this if I knew how the breakdown goes, to know if the arguing points are at the fringes or in the middle, volume-wise. I don't, frankly, trust most of the stats I have seen, as they mostly come from agendaed sources. Count me in on the evolving views.
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I don't think there are any unagendaed sources on this. Anyway, I can't figure out how y'all are grouping things, or whether everyone who is agreeing is grouping things the same way. Is it:
(1) Any abortion in the first trimester (or so) fine
(2) Any abortion thereafter fine if (significant? how is this measured?) health risk to the mother (does mental count?)
(3) Any abortion thereafter fine if fetus not viable (what does this mean, anyway? would not be born alive? Baby would not live more than a day or two? Baby would be severely handicapped and would not live more than a year or two, and those years would be spent in a hospital hooked up to machines?)
OR
(1) Any abortion in the first trimester (or so) fine
(2) Any abortion thereafter fine if there is a health risk to the mother
and the fetus is not viable?
???? I couldn't tell which one Penske originally posited, so I definitely can't tell what people are agreeing with. Plus there are all the unanswered questions.
