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[SlaveNoMore]

Originally posted by Mmmm, Burger (C.J.)
Why does he deserve an apology? All along many people readily acknowledged that it was unlikely a crime was committed for the reasons you point out--some of the elements weren't satisfied.

But Novak's first article said "two administration sources confirmed Wilson's wife . . . " One was Armitage. The other was Rove. Both have admitted to this. Are you saying that because Armitage came first, by a few days (yet still before the first article was published), Rove's role is somehow lessened?

I don't get it. Novak needed confirmation for his column. Like most reporters, he wants a second source for an explosive allegation like he was making. Rove was that second source. Putting aside the requirements (or limits of the law), Rove was as involved as Armitage in "outing" Plame.

If you think there's nothing wrong with what was done because it was withing the bounds of the law, fine. But to say that Rove's culpability, if any, is diminished because it's now clear that Armitage leaked first (yet closely in time) reduces whatever moral (if not legal) trangression Rove committed makes little sense.

Armitage voluteered the information to give Novak a story.

Whereas:

"When Novak inquired about Wilson's wife working for the CIA, Rove indicated he had heard something like that, the source said."

You see no difference here?