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Re: Objectively intelligent.
Suppose that the federal government has the authority to seize medical supplies without facing a takings claim. (I think the way this works is that the law essentially gives the federal government a ROFR when the supplier sells.) Suppose that the federal government then decides to give have of those supplies to the states, and the other half to a private company which can sell them. What would make the second half of that arrangement illegal? It seems like there must be some laws that prevent the government from giving away government property at sweetheart terms. The whole arrangement sounds wildly corrupt.
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“It was fortunate that so few men acted according to moral principle, because it was so easy to get principles wrong, and a determined person acting on mistaken principles could really do some damage." - Larissa MacFarquhar
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