LawTalkers  

Go Back   LawTalkers > General Discussion > Politics

» Site Navigation
 > FAQ
» Online Users: 760
0 members and 760 guests
No Members online
Most users ever online was 4,499, 10-26-2015 at 08:55 AM.
 
 
Thread Tools Display Modes
Prev Previous Post   Next Post Next
Old 02-17-2005, 06:55 PM   #11
ltl/fb
Registered User
 
ltl/fb's Avatar
 
Join Date: Mar 2003
Location: Flyover land
Posts: 19,042
Brit Hume, deceptive hack

Quote:
Originally posted by Greedy,Greedy,Greedy
A consumption tax can have progressive rates, but will that make it a progressive tax?

Those with low income AND less wealth clearly have the least ability to pay. Yet, once they get over the exemption amount, they will pay 15% on virtually all their income and all their wealth (the two being virtually coterminous). At the same time, Bill Gates will consume a paltry couple of million a year, pay his 35% tax on that, but (absent other taxes) pay only a tiny fraction of either his income or his wealth.

So, the question is really how do we define progressive? Different formulas can be used, but at the end of the day what I (and I think Wonk) is most interested in is the taxpayers overall ability to pay, and thus a denominator in the progressive equation based on some measure of income and/or wealth.
To make up the tax revenue, the tax rate on consumption over $40k a year would be considerably higher than 35%.

Which is what might make this totally unpalatable to the rich.
ltl/fb is offline  
 


Posting Rules
You may not post new threads
You may not post replies
You may not post attachments
You may not edit your posts

BB code is On
Smilies are On
[IMG] code is On
HTML code is Off

Forum Jump

Powered by vBadvanced CMPS v3.0.1

All times are GMT -4. The time now is 03:25 PM.